You know, I get sick and tired of hearing people continually say "You know, the italicized words in the King James Bible were added by the translators. That means we can take them out."
While not a linguist by anyone's definition, I have studied a little Spanish. When translating from one language to another, sometimes words have to be added.
Take for example the phrase "Hablo Espanol". A word-for-word translation is "Speak Spanish", but the "o" ending in the verb "Hablo" indicates who is speaking. A honest, literal translation would be "I speak Spanish" In the KJV, the "I" would be italicized.
BUT, funny thing is that languages are different. Check this out.
Exodus 3:6 Moreover he said, I am the God of thy father, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob. And Moses hid his face; for he was afraid to look upon God.
Mathew 22:32 I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob God is not the God of the dead, but of the living.
Note that when Jesus was quoting Gensis, the word "AM" was italicized in the Hebrew but not the Greek. Different languages, different rules.
There's a bunch more examples like this where an Old Testament verse is quoted in the New Testament and the words that where "added by the translators in the Old are quoted by the New.
AGAPE vs PHILEO
We are told that we need to look deeper than the English translation, and these words are an example of the reason why. Agape and Phileo both are translated as "love" in the Bible. We are told that "Agape" is the selfless, holy love of God and "Phileo" is brotherly, casual love.
A look at the comparitive useage of these reveals that there is no such distinction. Check out http://www.kjv1611.org.uk/AGAPE%20PHILEO%20LOVE%20CHALLENGE.htm
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